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DRFLK1 · 14 topics

SQE1 Dispute Resolution.

Civil litigation, ADR, and court procedures.

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All 14 topics in Dispute Resolution

SRA-aligned
  1. 01

    Dispute Resolution Mechanisms

    Comparison of ADR methods (arbitration, mediation) and litigation for resolving civil disputes

    Free
  2. 02

    Pre-Action Considerations

    Limitation periods, pre-action protocols, and preliminary steps before issuing proceedings

  3. 03

    Commencing a Claim

    Court jurisdiction, issuing proceedings, and service of claim forms

  4. 04

    Responding to a Claim

    Defendant's options and responses to civil proceedings

  5. 05

    Statements of Case

    Structure, content, and amendments of statements of case in civil proceedings

  6. 06

    Interim Applications

    Court applications before trial - getting urgent help from the judge while your case is ongoing

  7. 07

    Case Management

    Overriding objective and how courts keep cases on track towards trial

  8. 08

    Evidence

    Rules of evidence, witness statements, and expert testimony in civil proceedings

  9. 09

    Disclosure and Inspection

    Disclosure obligations, document inspection, and privilege in civil proceedings

  10. 10

    Trial Preparation

    Getting ready for trial - bundles, skeleton arguments, and timetables

  11. 11

    Trial Procedure

    Conduct of a civil trial - advocacy, evidence, and judgment

  12. 12

    Costs

    Costs management, assessment, and orders in civil litigation

  13. 13

    Appeals

    Appeal procedure, grounds, and appellate court powers

  14. 14

    Enforcement of Judgments

    Enforcing money judgments and recovering debt

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4 sample DR questions

Real SBA questions from the Dispute Resolution bank, with the full explanation. The paid bank covers all 14 topics and difficulty levels.

Athena is a solicitor advising a client who is considering whether to commence court proceedings against a former business partner for breach of contract. The client is concerned about the publicity of the dispute and wants to understand the key features of litigation. The dispute involves a relatively straightforward claim for £75,000.

Which of the following statements best describes a key characteristic of litigation in the courts of England and Wales?

  1. Litigation is a public process that creates binding precedent, with judgments generally open to the public and proceedings subject to the strict procedural rules of the Civil Procedure Rules. Correct
  2. Litigation proceedings are always conducted in private, with only the parties and their legal representatives permitted to attend hearings and access court documents.
  3. Litigation allows parties to choose their own judge with specific expertise in the relevant area of law and to set their own timetable for the conduct of the proceedings.
  4. Litigation proceedings are without prejudice, meaning that nothing said or disclosed during the proceedings can be referred to in any subsequent legal proceedings.
  5. Litigation is a flexible process where parties can agree to depart from the Civil Procedure Rules without requiring court approval at any stage of the proceedings.
Why: Litigation in England and Wales is characterised by being a public process (proceedings and judgments are generally open to the public), creating binding precedent (higher court decisions bind lower courts), and being governed by the strict procedural rules of the CPR. Options B, C, D, and E are incorrect because: litigation is public not private; parties cannot choose their judge; proceedings are not without prejudice; and parties cannot simply agree to depart from the CPR without court approval.

Two companies are in a dispute over the interpretation of a distribution agreement. Their commercial relationship has been ongoing for ten years and both wish to continue working together after the dispute is resolved. They have agreed to try mediation. One director asks what will happen if the mediation fails.

Which of the following statements best describes the legal position regarding mediation in England and Wales?

  1. If mediation fails, the mediator will issue a binding decision determining the outcome of the dispute, which can be enforced in court like a judgment.
  2. Discussions during mediation are always without prejudice and cannot be referred to in court proceedings, but the mediator may impose a binding settlement if the parties cannot agree.
  3. Mediation is a facilitated negotiation where parties control the outcome; discussions are typically without prejudice and if mediation fails, nothing said can be used in subsequent court proceedings. Correct
  4. Mediation results in a legally binding agreement only if the mediator approves the settlement terms, regardless of whether both parties have signed any documentation.
  5. If mediation fails, the court will penalise both parties by ordering them to pay the mediator's costs on the indemnity basis, regardless of the circumstances of the failure.
Why: Mediation is a facilitated negotiation process where an impartial third party (the mediator) helps parties reach their own settlement. The mediator does NOT impose a decision. Discussions are without prejudice, meaning if mediation fails, nothing said can be used in subsequent court proceedings. If parties settle, they sign a binding agreement. Options A, B, D, and E are incorrect because: mediators do not issue binding decisions; mediators do not impose settlements; parties' agreement (not mediator approval) creates the binding settlement; and courts do not automatically penalise parties for failed mediation.

Two brothers own and operate a family business. They have fallen out over the future direction of the company and one wishes to buy the other's shares. They cannot agree on valuation. The relationship has become strained, but both acknowledge that they would like to preserve their personal relationship if possible.

Which of the following statements best explains why mediation would be particularly appropriate for this dispute?

  1. Mediation is the only dispute resolution mechanism that can determine the fair market value of shares in a private company, as courts lack jurisdiction over valuation disputes.
  2. Family members are legally required to attempt mediation before commencing court proceedings, under the Family Law Act 1996, which applies to all disputes between relatives.
  3. Mediation is always free for family businesses, whereas court proceedings and arbitration require substantial upfront payments that many small businesses cannot afford.
  4. Mediation's collaborative and party-controlled approach can help preserve personal relationships, and the without-prejudice nature of discussions enables creative solutions beyond simple court orders. Correct
  5. Mediators have special statutory powers to order family members to compromise their disputes, which makes mediation more effective than court proceedings for relationship-based conflicts.
Why: Mediation is particularly appropriate where parties value ongoing relationships, as its collaborative, non-adversarial, party-controlled approach can preserve and even improve relationships. The without-prejudice privilege enables open discussion, and parties can craft creative solutions beyond the court's limited powers (such as complex buyout arrangements, future governance structures, etc.). Options A, B, C, and E are incorrect because: courts can determine share valuations; there is no legal requirement for family members to mediate before court; mediation is not always free; and mediators have no power to order parties to compromise.

A shareholders' agreement contains a clause providing that any dispute concerning the valuation of shares for transfer purposes shall be referred to an independent expert whose decision shall be final and binding. A shareholder wishes to sell their shares and the parties cannot agree on the valuation. The departing shareholder suggests court proceedings, but the other shareholder points to the clause.

Which of the following statements best describes expert determination as a dispute resolution mechanism?

  1. Expert determination is a non-binding process where the expert provides recommendations that the parties may accept or reject as they see fit.
  2. Expert determination is a court-supervised process where the judge appoints an expert to advise the court, with the judge then making the final binding decision.
  3. Expert determination involves an expert deciding a specific technical or professional issue, with the decision being binding on the parties, used for matters like valuations and rent reviews. Correct
  4. Expert determination is the same as arbitration, governed by the Arbitration Act 1996, with the same procedural rules and rights of appeal.
  5. Expert determination can only be used for disputes involving property, such as rent reviews and boundary disputes, and is not available for valuation of shares or other financial matters.
Why: Expert determination involves an expert deciding a specific technical or professional issue. The decision is BINDING on the parties (contractually). It is used for disputes requiring specialist expertise such as valuation of shares, rent reviews, construction defects, and professional fees. It is simpler and cheaper than full arbitration or litigation. Options A, B, D, and E are incorrect because: the decision is binding, not non-binding; it is not court-supervised; it is distinct from arbitration with different rules; and it can be used for various professional/technical issues beyond property.
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Common questions

Dispute Resolution FAQs

Civil litigation, ADR, and court procedures. The SRA assessment specification breaks Dispute Resolution into 14 topics, each examined through single-best-answer (SBA) questions in the FLK1 paper.
Dispute Resolution sits in FLK1. Both FLK1 papers are 180 single-best-answer questions in two 2h 5m sittings on the same day.
14. Our notes, flashcards, and question bank are mapped one-to-one against the SRA's DR specification so nothing is missed.
Most candidates allocate roughly 42–70 hours across notes, flashcards, and timed practice. The exact split depends on your background — re-sitters can usually focus on weak topics rather than re-reading.
Active recall beats re-reading. Read the notes once, then practise SBA questions in mixed order, then revisit weak topics. Our weak-area tracker surfaces the topics where your accuracy is below 70%.
Yes. The free readiness quiz includes a sample from every subject, and free accounts can access sample questions across all subjects. The full DR question bank is unlocked with any paid plan (1, 6, or 12 months) and is covered by the 14-day money-back guarantee.
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